[Typhus]

For Spell Amps, combat spells can be amped by +1 damage for +2 drain.  This is basically buying a net hit.  Any reason you couldn't do this with other spell types?  Buy 1 hit for 2 drain?

[Stainless Steel Devil Rat]

It's only equitable to buying a hit for direct combat spells. For indirect combat spells, you still have to hit first before the +1DV is relevant.  In other words, it only increases DV... it's not helping you overcome an opposed resistance test.

So, no.  There's no reason you should be able to take more drain to make it more likely you win the opposed resistance test.

That being sad, perhaps SG6 will introduce an Amp that does this.  But until such time, there's no correlation between +1DV and a net hit (for any spell that's not a Direct Combat spell).

[penllawen]

It's only equitable to buying a hit for direct combat spells. For indirect combat spells, you still have to hit first before the +1DV is relevant.

Note that CRB doesn't actually say clearly that 0 net hits is a miss. In fact, it implies it still hits but at +0 damage. The worked example on the same page implies 0 hits is a miss, but doesn't state it clearly either. 

"Rather than having the magic do the pummeling, Indirect Combat spells create an effect that causes the damage—igniting a fireball, say, or sparking a lightning bolt. To cast an Indirect Combat spell, roll Sorcery + Magic vs. Reaction + Willpower. Damage is caster’s Magic divided by two (rounded up) + net hits + Amp Up damage. Targets roll their Body to resist this damage, as they would in physical combat."

[Typhus]

So, what's the difference between adding 1 damage vs 1 net hit to the total net hits?  It arrives at the same destination.

I take the point that you can't buy an autohit on an attack, and that's fair enough, and once you've hit adding 1 damage is the same as having hit a little extra hard (ie rolling one extra hit).  It's like an special ammo effect, essentially.  "If I hit you with my explosive ammo attack, you take +1 damage".

Assuming any other resisted spell fails to be fully resisted, couldn't you apply the same amp to it?  So, "When successful, the spell is treated as having had 1 extra net hit when determining the results"?

Or does that break something?

[Stainless Steel Devil Rat]

So, what's the difference between adding 1 damage vs 1 net hit to the total net hits?  It arrives at the same destination.

Out of all spells, this is only true of one type of spell inside one spell category.  So broadly speaking, no +1DV does not equal 1 net hit.

+1 net hit to the resistance test, broadly speaking, isn't necessarily a broken mechanic.  It may or may not be adequately be priced at +2 drain.  Something very much like this could easily end up being in a published book.  But in the meanwhile, my point is that +1 DV does NOT equal 1 net hit on any spell other than the example of Direct Combat Spells.